An example of this would be the use of the word "flesh." In Romans 3:20 it states "Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in God's sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin." In this passage the word "flesh" refers to persons.
In Ephesians 2:3 it states "All of us also lived lived among them at one time, gratifying the cravings of the flesh, and following its desires and thoughts." In this passage, the word "flesh" means sensual desires.
In 1 Timothy 3:16 we are told that "Without controversy, great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, and received up into glory." The word "flesh" is used here to refer to the incarnation of Jesus Christ.
This rule calls for the reader to pay very close attention to the use of certain words in Scripture (Juan A. Carmona, The Liberation of Puerto Rico: A Theological Perspective. Rochester: Colgate Rochester Divinity School, 1982, p. 33). A particular word in a given passage of Scripture may very well take on a different meaning in another passage.
I now invite and challenge you, the reader to share with us your thoughts on this particular principle of biblical interpretation. Is it helpful or more confusing? Your input is appreciated.
Grace and peace,
Dr. Juan A. Ayala-Carmona
This seems the same as reading English prose, wherein many words have different meanings. Likewise, in English the same pronoun can refer to many different things. When what a pronoun references in unclear, interpretation of the text is difficult.
ReplyDeleteGary Dudley
Thank you Bro. Gary: That is precisely why I spoke about the conjunction of the phrase. Your comments are appreciated.
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